In 1 Cor 9:19\u201321 Paul writes,<\/p>\n
For though I am free from all men, I have made myself a servant to all, that I might win the more;\u00a0and to the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might win Jews; to those who are under the law<\/strong>, as under the law, that I might win those who are under the law<\/strong>;\u00a0\u00a0to those who are without law, as without law (not being without law toward God, but under law toward Messiah<\/strong>), that I might win those who are without law\u2026<\/p><\/blockquote>\n
What on earth does Paul mean when he uses the phrase “under the law” in this passage and elsewhere in his writings? Does it mean, as the mainstream church teaches, that the Torah has been done away with and is no longer necessary for believers today? If so, then what does Paul mean when he says “under the law toward Messiah”? Is it possible that he’s talking about being Torah-obedient in relationship with and through the Messiah? If so, perhaps this what John is referring to when he mentions the end time saints who keep the Torah-commandments of Elohim and who also have the testimony, faith or gospel of\u00a0Yeshua (Rev 12:17 and 14:12).<\/p>\n
To answer these questions and much more, I invite you to watch my video on “Under the Law” Meaning Explained at<\/p>\n