{"id":19374,"date":"2021-08-07T09:52:42","date_gmt":"2021-08-07T16:52:42","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/hoshanarabbah.org\/blog\/?p=19374"},"modified":"2021-08-07T09:52:50","modified_gmt":"2021-08-07T16:52:50","slug":"is-eating-biblical-kosher-a-doctrine-of-demons-as-some-in-the-church-teach","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/hoshanarabbah.org\/blog\/2021\/08\/07\/is-eating-biblical-kosher-a-doctrine-of-demons-as-some-in-the-church-teach\/","title":{"rendered":"Is eating biblical kosher a doctrine of demons as some in the Church teach?"},"content":{"rendered":"\n
\"\"<\/figure>\n\n\n\n

1 Timothy 4:1\u20133 Doctrines of demons\u2026forbidding to marry\u2026abstain from foods [Gr. broma]<\/em>.<\/strong> <\/p>\n\n\n\n

Asceticism\u2014A Doctrine of Demons<\/strong><\/p>\n\n\n\n

\"\"<\/figure><\/div>\n\n\n\n

When Paul speaks of \u201cdoctrines of demons\u201d<\/strong> and then goes on to mention \u201cto abstain from foods which Elohim created\u201d is he referring to the biblical dietary laws as many Christians scholars assert? If not, that what social and cultural forces of that day were affecting the saints such that Paul had to instruct them to beware of \u201cdoctrines of demons\u201d that were encouraging them not to marry and to abstain from eating certain types of food?\u00a0<\/p>\n\n\n\n

To answer this question, we must first define some terms. Is the Greek word food<\/em> (Gr. broma<\/em>) as used in verse three a reference to \u201carticles allowed or forbidden by the Jewish law\u201d (i.e. Elohim\u2019s Torah-law or law of Moses) as the well known Strong\u2019s Concordance <\/em>claims? Is The Theological Dictionary of the New Testament <\/em>(The TDNT<\/em>)correct in its definition of this Greek word, when it declares that broma<\/em> relates to the \u201ccultic and ascetic prescriptions of Judaism which are declared to be religiously indifferent by Jesus and early Christianity\u2026[thus the] distinction between clean and unclean meats is done away\u201d (vol 1. p. 642)\u2014a claim that Arndt and Gingrich do not even make in their touted Greek lexicon (nor do the lexicons by Vine or Thayer)? <\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clearly, contrary to what some biblical scholars assert, Paul cannot be referring to the Torah here, since the Torah-law of Elohim neither prohibits marriage, but encourages it, nor does it command the abstention of eating biblically approved meats. In fact, the whole Levitical and tabernacle system revolved around the sacrifice and eating of kosher animals. To say these are doctrines of demons (as some Christian teachers claim) is blasphemy against YHVH Elohim\u2019s Torah, which is the Creator\u2019s very instructions to humans on how to live righteously and without sin (Ps 119:172; Deut 10:12; 1 John 3:4; 2:3\u20136; John 14:15) .<\/p>\n\n\n\n

The word foods <\/em>or meats <\/em>as found in 1 Tim 4:3 is the Greek word broma<\/em> referring to \u201cfood in general.\u201d However, contextually, Paul is using a narrower definition of foods <\/em>or meats<\/em> based on his statement in verse four where he refers to \u201cevery creature of Elohim\u201d (v. 4). Creature<\/em> is the Greek word ktisma<\/em>, which literally means \u201ccreature,\u201d and, as used in the NT, refers to living and breathing creatures as opposed to all other creations of Elohim such as plants and rocks (i.e. ibid.; also see Jas 1:18; Rev 5:13; 8:9). Therefore, Paul is not referring to food in general (plants and animals) but specifically to food which edible animal meat as biblically defined. <\/p>\n\n\n\n

Once again, if Paul is not referring to the Torah when he is condemning these doctrines of demons that are calling for celibacy and the abstention of meat eating, then to what is he referring?<\/p>\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n

To the credit of The TDNT<\/em>, in its brief explanation of 1 Timothy 4:3, it sees Paul confronting the heretics in the church who were promoting the pagan Greek gnostic philosophy of asceticism, which devalued the earthly and the material (vol. 1., pp. 643 and 644). Similarly, David Stern in his commentary on this scripture passage concurs, and states that Paul is here addressing the unbiblical concept of Greek asceticism, and not the biblical dietary laws. \u201c\u2018Abstinence from foods\u2019 does not mean [not] observing kashrut<\/em> [i.e. the biblical dietary laws], although the false teachers probably did incorporate elements of the Jewish dietary laws into their ascetic practices\u201d (Jewish NT Commentary<\/em>, p. 644). Moreover, \u201cAsceticism was on the rise in the Greco-Roman paganism, and although most teachers (both Jewish and Gentile) advocated marriage, the doctrine of celibacy was becoming more popular (especially among Gentiles, but some Essenes also seem to have practiced it)\u201d (The IVP Bible Background Commentary\u2014NT<\/em>, by Craig Keener, p. 614). As evidence of the confusion in the minds of some Christian scholars, while trying to understand this passage, Keener goes on to say, contrary to Stern, that \u201cabstaining from foods\u201d probably refers to Jewish food laws\u201d (ibid.). This statement, of course, is patently contrary to Scripture if by \u201cJewish food laws\u201d he means the biblical dietary laws commanded in Leviticus 11 and elsewhere. If this is what Paul means, then he is referring to the biblical dietary laws as \u201cdoctrines of demons\u201d (1 Tim 4:1), which is absurd and blasphemy against the Word of Elohim. If Keener, on the other hand, is referring to the many extra-biblical food restriction that had crept into Judaism\u2014the traditions of men by which the word of Elohim had been made of non-effect, to which Yeshua made reference (Mark 7:13)\u2014then he may have a point here, but he fails to make this point, and he leaves his explanation open to including the Torah-word of Elohim\u2014a mistake he ought not to have made.<\/p>\n\n\n\n

As we have seen, several scholars have noted that Paul could not have been referring to the Torah when he talks about various doctrines of a demons, which advocated abstaining from marriage and not eating meat. Rather, Paul was referring to the Greek philosophy of asceticism, which had crept into some sects of Judaism including the Essenes, and was not now making inroads into early Christianity. So what is asceticism?<\/p>\n\n\n\n

In its article on asceticism, The Encyclopedia Britannica <\/em>(https:\/\/www.britannica.com\/topic\/asceticism)defines and then describes this religious-philosophical system as follows:<\/p>\n\n\n\n

Asceticism, (from Greek aske\u014d<\/em>: \u201cto exercise\u201d or \u201cto train\u201d), the practice of the denial of physical or psychological desires in order to attain a spiritual ideal or goal. Hardly any religion has been without at least traces or some features of asceticism.<\/p>

The origins of asceticism lie in man\u2019s attempts to achieve various ultimate goals or ideals: development of the \u201cwhole\u201d person, human creativity, ideas, the \u201cself,\u201d or skills demanding technical proficiency. Athletic ask\u0113sis (\u201ctraining\u201d), involving the ideal of bodily fitness and excellence, was developed to ensure the highest possible degree of physical fitness in an athlete. Among the ancient Greeks, athletes preparing for physical contests (e.g., the Olympic Games) disciplined their bodies by abstaining from various normal pleasures and by enduring difficult physical tests. In order to achieve a high proficiency in the skills of warfare, warriors also adopted various ascetical practices. The ancient Israelites, for example, abstained from sexual intercourse before going into battle.<\/p><\/blockquote>\n\n\n\n

The view that one ought to deny one\u2019s lower desires\u2014understood as sensuous, or bodily\u2014in contrast with one\u2019s spiritual desires and virtuous aspirations, became a central principle in ethical thought. Plato believed that it is necessary to suppress bodily desires so that the soul can be free to search for knowledge. This view was also propounded by Plotinus, a Greek philosopher of the 3rd century AD and one of the founders of Neoplatonism, a philosophy concerned with hierarchical levels of reality. The Stoics, among whom asceticism was primarily a discipline to achieve control over the promptings of the emotions, upheld the dignity of human nature and the wise man\u2019s necessary imperturbability, which they believed would become possible through the suppression of the affective, or appetitive, part of man.<\/p>\n\n\n\n

Christian writer, Jack Zavada describes asceticism as\u2026<\/p>\n\n\n\n

the practice of self-denial in an attempt to draw closer to God. It may include such disciplines as fasting, celibacy, wearing simple or uncomfortable clothing, poverty, sleep deprivation, and in extreme forms, flagellation, and self-mutilation.<\/p>

Asceticism was common in the early Church when Christians pooled their money and practiced a simple, humble lifestyle. It took on more severe forms in the lives of the desert fathers, anchorite hermits who lived apart from others in the North African desert in the third and fourth centuries. They modeled their lives on John the Baptist, who lived in the wilderness, wore a camel hair garment and subsisted on locusts and wild honey.<\/p>

This practice of strict self-denial received an endorsement from the early church father Augustine (354-430 AD), bishop of Hippo in North Africa, who wrote a rule or set of instructions for monks and nuns in his diocese.<\/p>

Before he converted to Christianity, Augustine spent nine years as a Manichee, a religion that practiced poverty and celibacy. He was also influenced by the deprivations of the desert fathers. (https:\/\/www.learnreligions.com\/what-is-asceticism-700046)<\/p><\/blockquote>\n\n\n\n

From this, it shouldn\u2019t be hard to see that certain forms of asceticism have found there way into Roman Catholicism and Eastern Orthodox Christianity in the form of a celibate priesthood, the dressing in colorless religious garb, as well as living a austere, cloistered and communal life. Even later Christian sects such as the Medieval Manichaens and possibly the Puritans may have been influenced by the unbiblical philosophy of asceticism.<\/p>\n\n\n\n

1 Timothy 4:3\u20135, Foods<\/em>.<\/strong> Many take this passage to mean that simple \u201cprayer over the food\u201d sanctifies nonkosher food. Were we to take this logic to its illogical conclusion, then we might suppose that prayer over skunk meat, certain poisonous types of frogs, snakes and salamanders as well as poisonous mushrooms would make them edible. Of course, this is ridiculous. Is this really what Paul, the orthodox Jewish Torah scholar, is teaching? Once again, understanding Scripture in its context is essential to obtaining its proper interpretation. These verses read:<\/p>\n\n\n\n

Forbidding to marry, and commanding to abstain from meats, which Elohim has created to be received with thanksgiving of them which believe and know the truth. For every creature of Elohim is good, and nothing to be refused, if it be received with thanksgiving<\/strong>, for it is sanctified by the Word of Elohim and prayer. <\/strong>(emphasis added)<\/p><\/blockquote>\n\n\n\n

What does this passage really say? Does it say that the meat we eat is sanctified (i.e. set aside for special use) only<\/em> through the act of prayer?<\/p>\n\n\n\n

In verse five Paul teaches that the meat we eat is sanctified through prayer and <\/em>the Word of Elohim. When Paul wrote this letter to Timothy there was no Testimony of Yeshua or New Testament\u2014only the Tanakh or Old Testament. Where in the Tanakh do we find which meats YHVH has set aside or sanctified for man as edible? Leviticus chapter eleven, of course. Furthermore, in verse three above Paul talks about \u201cthem which believe and know the truth<\/em>.\u201d How does Scripture define truth<\/em>? Yeshua defined truth<\/em> as the Word of Elohim<\/em> (namely the Hebrew Scriptures, which is all that existed at that time) (John 17:7). The Tanakh define truth as the Torah-law of YHVH (which contain YHVH\u2019s biblical kosher laws pertaining to clean and unclean meats; see Ps 119:142 and 151). <\/p>\n\n\n\n

So when examined in its proper context this passage in 2 Timothy in no way teaches that it is scripturally permissible for believers to indulge in unclean meats. On the contrary, this passage in fact validates the biblical kosher laws as outlined in the Torah and shows clearly, if we let Scripture speak for itself and define its own terms instead of reading into it our own meanings, that the biblical dietary laws are for believers today.<\/p>\n\n\n\n

So what is the larger issue Paul is addressing here when it comes to foods and marriage? What was going on culturally in the Greek-speaking world that was affecting the saints such that these were issues that needed to be addressed? See notes at verse 1.<\/p>\n

\n\t\t\t\t<\/a>\t\t\t\t
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